Don wrote:

PART TWO

CONTRADICTIONS WITHIN THE CLNT PERTAINING TO:
eon, eons, eonian, eons of the eons, etc.
Mark 3:29  “yet whoever should be blaspheming against the holy spirit is having no pardon for the eon, but is liable to the eonian penalty for the sin.”  GOD IS EONIAN? (note:  this is blasphemy of the Holy Spirit by implying that the Holy Spirit is not equal with The Father and The Son.  The Holy Spirit is also given by Jesus Christ.  John 14:18, John 20:22, Matthew 3:11, 2 Thessalonians 2:8.
Tony's reply:   Well, of course God is said to be “the eonian God” (Romans 16:26). But whether or not God is the eonian God is not broached in Mark 3:29. Does anyone out there who has any logic understand why Don brings up “God is eonian” after quoting Mark 3:29? I don't even know why Don brings it up here. The ones who produced the CLNT believe that holy spirit is the spirit of God. It just need not be capitalized. Neither is this, according to Don, blasphemy of the holy spirit. Blasphemy of the holy spirit is to attribute the miracles of Christ to Satan. I don't know why Don referenced John 14:18 or 2 Thessalonians 2:8 above as if they support his claim that they show Jesus Christ sending the holy spirit. I guess I can only attribute it to Don's wild imagination.

Don wrote: Luke 1:33 “His father, and He shall reign over the house of Jacob for the eons.  And of His kingdom there shall be no consummation.” (note: Not according to 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible') THE FATHER FOR THE EONS?
Tony's reply: I don't know why Don states: “THE FATHER FOR THE EONS?” as if it relates to the above verse. Here is the verse with the preceeding verse:
    Luke 1:32 He shall be great, and Son of the Most High shall He be called. And the Lord God shall be giving Him the throne of David, (33) His father, and He shall reign over the house of Jacob for the eons. And of His kingdom there shall be no consummation.”
    It is not saying anything about the Father being for the eons. It is, however stating that Jesus will reign over the house of Jacob for the eons. I also do not know why Don states that “God is both 'immortal and incorruptible'” as it relates to this verse especially since the verse is dealing with Jesus and not God. How is it so, according to Don that God having immortality and incorruption make it so that Jesus will not reign over the house of Judah for the eons to come?
    Let us look at the verses Don references above and see if they have any relevance to Luke 1:33:
    1 Timothy 1:17 Now to the King of the eons, the incorruptible, invisible, only, and wise God, be honor and glory for the eons of the eons! Amen!” This is pertaining to God and not Christ. God is the eonian God (Romans 16:26) some bad translations say “eternal God” in 16:26. But, being the eonian God means He is God pertaining to the eons. He is over them, controlling them, subjecting mankind to the goal He has in each one of them. He is, figuratively a King, the King of the eons. He rules over them, bringing to fruition the goals He has for each eon.

    Don's second verse: Romans 1:23 “and they change the glory of the incorruptible God into the likeness of an image of a corruptible human being and flying creatures and quadrupeds and reptiles.” It eludes me as to why Don picked this verse. The verse is just talking about God Who is not corrupt yet some change that glory into that of a corruptible human being etc. But, again, this is dealing with God. It has no bearing on if Christ rules over the house of Jacob for the eons. I guess Don thinks that if God is incorruptible that therefore aion should be “for ever” in Luke 1:33. But does this make sense? If God is “good,” and He is, should we make “aion” be “for ever” too? Being corrupt or incorruptible has nothing to do with the translation of aion.
    2 Timothy 1:10 “yet now is being manifested through the advent of our Saviour, Christ Jesus, Who, indeed, abolishes death, yet illuminates life and incorruption through the evangel.” Again, how is it that if Jesus abolishes death that this has a bearing on Luke 1:33 as to if He reigns over the house of Jacob for the eons or “for ever”? Cannot He who is immortal reign for the next two eons to come which will come to an end? Of course He can, and will.
    1 Timothy 6:16 “Who alone has immortality, making His home in light inaccessible, Whom not one of mankind perceived nor can be perceiving, to Whom be honor and might eonian! Amen!” Again, so what if Christ has immortality? Should this change the duration of the eons from that of eons that will surely end as Hebrews 9:26 states: “consummations of the eons” (KJV improperly has “end of the world) and as 1 Corinthians 10:11 states: “consummations of the eons” (KJV improperly has “ends of the world”)? No. Christ having immortality does not change the non-eternal eons to unending eons.
    What I'd like to ask Don is how it is he thinks that if God is immortal and incorruptible that this makes it so that Christ will not reign over the house of Jacob for the eons. What I'd also like to ask Don is how he thinks that where he wrote: “THE FATHER FOR THE EONS?” above has any bearing on the subject of Luke 1:33. 1 Timothy 1:17 is “King of the eons” not “Father for the eons.”

Don wrote: John 6:51 “I am the living Bread which descends out of heaven.  If anyone should be eating of this Bread, shall be living for the eon”.
John 6:54 “He who is masticating My flesh and drinking My blood has life eonian, and I shall be raising him in the last day.”
John 6:58 “This is the Bread which descends out of heaven.  Not according as the fathers ate and died;  he who is masticating this Bread shall be living for the eon.”
(note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word “immortality”.
Tony's reply: Actually, the one (metaphorically speaking of course) eating His flesh and drinking His blood does have eonian life which is life pertaining to the eon. But this surely does not contradict Hebrews 7:16 as Don suggests, which is: “Who has not come to be according to the law of a fleshy precept, but according to the power of an indissoluble life.” Cannot one have an indissoluble life and at the same time have life pertaining to the eons? Cannot the eons end while the One who has an indissoluble life continue to live due to having immortality? Yes, of course One can.
    I don't know why Don thinks that the way John 6:58 is translated contradicts John 6:54. Here is John 6:54: “He who is masticating My flesh and drinking My blood has life eonian, and I shall be raising him in the last day.” To be “living for the eon” in verse 58 is to be having “life eonian” which is life pertaining to the eon. I also am not sure why Don believes John 6:54 contradicts Romans 1:25 “those who alter the truth of God into the lie, and are venerated, and offer divine service to the creature rather than the Creator, Who is blessed for the eons! Amen!” How is it that if one lives for the eon that this contradicts the truth that “God is blessed for the eons”? Cannot He be blessed also when the eons end? Does God being the “God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob” mean that He cannot be the God of the nations also?

Don wrote: John 8:35 “Now the slave is not remaining in the house for the eon.  The son is remaining for the eon.” (note: “son” is not capitalized, this error also appears in form of “he” in  1 Timothy 6:15, John 6:51, Romans 9:5 (“whom”), 1 John 2:17, etc.etc.etc.)
Tony's reply:   I'm not sure what Don is claiming above. “He” in 1 Timothy 6:15 is capitalized in the Concordant Version. “He” should not be capitalized in John 6:51 because it refers to the antecedent “anyone,” i.e., “if anyone . . . he . . . .” Funny that Don's KJV has a lower case “w” for “who” when speaking of Christ in Romans 9:5 but in the CLNT it is “Who.” The “h” in “he” in 1 John 2:17 should be that way and is so in the CLNT and KJV. I think the lower case “s” in “son” should be capitalized.

Don wrote:   John 13:8 “Peter is saying to Him, “Under no circumstances shouldst Thou be washing my feet for the eon!” John 14:16 “And I shall be asking the Father, and He will be giving you another consoler, that it, indeed, may be with you for the eon.” THE HOLY SPIRIT FOR THE EON?
Tony's reply:   Is the “spirit of truth” which is the consoler, a “being”? Does telling the disciples that the consoler which is the spirit of truth in John 14:17 being with them for the eon mean that it will not be with them in the eon to come or the eon after that? Hardly. The term “spirit of truth” can also be written “truth's spirit” just as “Son of God” can be written “God's Son. Truth's spirit is that invisible power of truth which consoles them while Christ is at the right hand of the Father in the heavens.

Don wrote:  John 17:5 “And now glorify Thou Me, Father, with Thyself, with the glory which I had before the world is with Thee.”
(note:  blatant error in the tense of this verse for “the world.”  “...before the world was...” is the correct rendering!  This contradicts John 17:25 “...before the disruption of the world...”)

Tony's reply:   Don must have meant it contradicts John 17:24, not “25.” . . . “Father, those whom Thou hast given Me, I will that, where I am, they also may be with Me, that they may be beholding My glory which Thou has given Me, for Thou lovest Me before the disruption of the world” (John 17:24).
     I don't see how it contradicts John 17:24. Darby and Young's Literal Translation have “before the world is, with Thee.”

Don wrote:   Romans 1:25 “who alter the truth of God into the lie, and are venerated, and offer divine service to the creature rather than the Creator, Who is blessed for the eons! Amen!” GOD IS BLESSED FOR ONLY THE EONS????
Tony's reply:   Had the Concordant Literal New Testament translated Romans 1:25 the way the Don's King James version did, it would have been guilty of altering the truth of God into the lie. God is blessed for the eons! We make no apology for that! Don's version, or should I say “perversion” alters the truth that God will be blessed for the eons to come, by mistranslating the plural “eons” as a singular “for ever.” Bad translation! Baaaaad! Ooooh! It is demonic! Satanic! God will be blessed for the eons! That is great news! And when the eons end, I'm sure He will still be blessed. But God wants to assure us that in the eons to come He will be blessed!

Don wrote: Romans 6:23 “For the ration of Sin is death, yet the gracious gift of God is life eonian, in Christ Jesus our Lord.” (note:  Not according to Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible'
Tony's reply:   Don says God is both immortal and incorruptible. The Scriptures show that it is Christ Who is immortal and God is incorruptible. How does Christ having immortality and God, incorruption keep the gracious gift from being life eonian or life pertaining to the eons? Why should Christ's immortalness and God's incorruptibleness make that which is pertaining to the eons morph into “that which pertains to eternity”? Cannot we who will put on immortality and incorruptness live through the duration of the eons to come and once those eons end, continue living? Of course we can.

Don wrote:   Romans 9:5 “whose are the fathers, and out of whom is the Christ according to the flesh, Who is over all, God be blessed for the eons. Amen!”
(note: “whom” is not capitalized, this error also appears in form of “he” in  1 Timothy 6:15, John 6:51, John 8:35, 1 John 2:17, etc.etc.etc.)

Tony's reply:   And why should “whom” be capitalized? The “whom” in Romans 9:5 relates to “the fathers, out of whom is the Christ.” The fathers are the “whom” of the verse. Surely Don is not suggesting that the fathers should be deified!
Also, “He” is capitalized in 1 Tim.6:15. The others should not be capitalized just like his KJV does not!

Don wrote:   Romans 11:36 “seeing that out of Him and through Him and for Him is all:  to Him be the glory for the eons! Amen!” (note:  How can the glory of Jesus Christ change?  Contradicts 1 Timothy 1:17 “....glory for the eons of the eons!...”  The rendering John 8:35 is also inconsistent, “...for the eon...” )
Tony's reply:   The above verse are not talking about Jesus Christ but God. Why does Don think that if His glory is for the eons that it changes?
     And what about John 8:35 being inconsistent?
     Here is John 8:35: “Now the slave is not remaining in the house for the eon. The son is remaining for the eon.”
     “The slave abideth not in the house for ever; the son abideth for ever” (John 8:35). Sooner or later the slave boy must go. Without birthright, a stranger to the promise, he has no permanent footing in the house. One idle word, one foolish act makes him intolerable, and he must begone. (Vladimir Gelesnoff, Unsearchable Riches, vol.10, p.62)

Don wrote:   Romans 16:26 “yet manifested now and through prophetic scriptures, according to the injunction of the eonian God being made known to all nations for faith-obedience--” (note: Not according to Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply:   Huh? Let's look at each verse Don references above and see if they state that God cannot be the eonian God which is the God pertaining to the eons, ruling over them, directing them, subjecting mankind to the goals He has in each eon:
     Heb 7:16 “Who has not come to be according to the law of a fleshy precept, but according to the power of an indissoluble life.”
     1 Tim. 1:17 “Now to the King of the eons, the incorruptible, invisible, only, and wise God, be honor and glory for the eons of the eons! Amen!”
     2 Tim.1:10 “yet now is being manifested through the advent of our Saviour, Christ Jesus, Who, indeed, abolishes death, yet illuminates life and incorruption through the evangel”
     1 Tim.6:16 Who alone has immortality, making His home in light inaccessible, Whom not one of mankind perceived nor can be perceiving, to Whom be honor and might eonian! Amen!”
    Concerning Hebrews 7:16, this speaks of Christ having the power of an indissoluble life. How does that life which Christ has keep God from being the eonian God? How does Christ's indissoluble life make it so God cannot be the Subjector pertaining to the eons?
    Concerning 1 Timothy 1:17 above, how does God having incorruptibleness make it so that God cannot be God pertaining to the eons? When the eons end does that mean God dies? In Revelation 20:4 where it is stated “they live and reign with Him a thousand years” does this mean that “thousand years” should be “eternity” because “indissoluble” is used of Christ? Please, let us think rationally here!
    Concerning 2 Timothy 1:10 above, does the fact that Christ Jesus, Who abolished death and illuminates life and incorruption make it so that God cannot be the “aioniou Theou” (eonian God)? Don just does not make a lick of sense!
  Concerning 1 Timothy 6:16 above, how does Don think that since Christ has immortality that God cannot be the eonian God? What does one having immortality have to do with God being the God pertaining to the eons? What does it have to do with God being in charge of the eons?

Don wrote:   Romans 16:27 “to the only, and wise God, through Christ Jesus, be glory for the eons of the eons. Amen!”(note:  Not according to Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible'
Tony's reply:   The above has already been dealt with. God will get glory for the eons of the eons even should Christ have immortality etc.

Don wrote:   2 Corinthians 5:1 “For we are aware that, if our terrestrial tabernacle house should be demolished, we have a building of God, a house not made by hands, eonian, in the heavens.” (note: Not according to Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply:   How does our body being eonian, or, pertaining to the glorious eons to come, which we will get, which will have the glory pertaining to those glorious eons, not be so if Christ is immortal and God incorruptible? Don does not make sense. We get this very special body because God has those attributes!

Don wrote:   2 Corinthians 9:9 “according as it is written, He scatters, He gives to the drudges, His righteousness remains for the eon.” (note: God's righteousness is 'temporary?'  Not according to 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply:   I'm curious as to why Don thinks that if the eons end that God's righteousness ends. Also, I am curious how it is that Don thinks that if God is immortal (actually, Christ is the One Who is immortal) and God incorruptible that these qualities make it so God's righteousness cannot be for the eon. And finally, I'd like to know why Don thinks that if God's righteousness is for the eon, that it therefore is temporary. 2 Corinthians 9:9 is a quotation of Psalm 12:9 “He disperses; he gives to the needy; His righteousness is standing into the future. . . .” and the LXX (The Greek Old Testament) has Psalm 12:9 as “His righteous is . . . for the eon.” Don't blame us. We didn't write it, God did. Take it up with Him if you don't like it, Don.

Don wrote:   2 Corinthians 11:31 “The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, Who is blessed for the eons, is aware that I am not lying.”
     Galatians 1:5 “to Whom be glory for the eons of the eons. Amen!”
     Ephesians 3:11 “in accord with the purpose of the eons, which He makes in Christ Jesus, our Lord;”
Ephesians 3:21 “to Him be glory in the ecclesia and in Christ Jesus for all the generations of the eon of the eons! Amen!”

     Philippians 4:20 “Now to our God and Father be glory for the eons of the eons! Amen!”
     1 Timothy 1:17 “Now to the King of the eons, the incorruptible, invisible, only, and wise God, be honor and glory for the eons of the eons! Amen! 1 Timothy 6:15 to it's own eras, the happy and only Potentate will be showing: He is King of kings and Lord of lords,
     1 Timothy 6:16 “Who alone has immortality, making His home in light inaccessible, Whom not one of mankind perceived nor can be perceiving, to Whom be honor and might eonian! Amen!” (note:  How can Jesus Christ be eonian when He is immortal? This grossly contradicts universalists definition of immortality of their own bodies of 1 Corinthians 15:52 - 54.  Denial of this immortality is denying their own doctrine! See part 3 below for a further study of this.)

Tony's reply:    Where do the verses above state “Jesus is eonian”? Don suggests they do, but where? Furthermore, some of the verses above are concerning Christ and some God. For the apostle Paul to state above that God gets glory for the eons of the eons, that He is the “King of the eons,” that He gets honor and glory for the eons of the eons; that Christ in 1 Timothy 6:16 gets “honor and might eonian,” surely does not contradict the Universalist's definition of immorality of our bodies as it concerns 1 Corinthians 15:52-54 as Don suggests. We surely will put on immortality and incorruption and God and Christ surely will receive the blessings enumerated in the passage Don quoted above.

Don wrote:   2 Timothy 2:10 “Therefore I am enduring all because of those who are chosen, that they also may be happening upon the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with glory eonian.” (note:  Not according to Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply:    And how is it if the glory eonian is that glory pertaining to the eons that this would contradict the fact that **Christ** is immortal and **God** incorruptible, that this means we won't get glory pertaining to the eons to come? Don does not make sense.

Don wrote:   2 Timothy 4:18 “The Lord will be rescuing me from every wicked work and will be saving me for His celestial kingdom:  to Whom be glory for the eons of the eons.  Amen!”
     Hebrews 1:8 “Yet to the Son:  “Thy throne, O God, is for the eon of the eon,  And a scepter of rectitude is the scepter of Thy kingdom.” (note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word “immortality” and “incorruptible”

Tony's reply:   And how is it that Christ's throne being for the eons of the eons (the next two eons) contradicts that He has immortality and God has incorruption? Christ only reigns UNTIL (see 1 Cor.15:25) that which comes to pass in 1 Corinthians 15:22-17. His reigning for a set period of time does not mean He is not immortal nor disprove that God is incorruptible.

Don wrote:   Hebrews 7:16 “Who has not come to be according to the law of a fleshy precept, but according to the power of an indissoluble life.”
(note:  indissoluble is correctly defined as “endless” in the CLNT)

Tony's reply:    Don is incorrect. “Indissoluble” in the Keyword Concordance in the CLNT is: “Indissoluble, “the negative of demolish, dissolve.” Its Greek word is broken down into the elements: a kata'luton UN-DOWN-LOOSED. But we probably should understand by the term “indissoluble life” that that life will not be dissolved or ended.

Don wrote:   Hebrews 7:28 “For the law is appointing men chief priests who have infirmity, yet the word sworn in the oath which is after the law, appoints the Son, perfected, for the eon.” (note:  Jesus Christ never sinned, He is perfect for all eternity.  Singular rendering of “...for the eon...” contradicts the plural of eon in Hebrews 13:8 “...for the eons...”)
Tony's reply:   Let us look at Hebrews 13:8 and see if Don is correct:
     The verse “Jesus Christ, yesterday and today, is the Same One for the eons also” does not contradict that Christ is perfected “for the eon.” Jesus Christ remains the same One yesterday, today and for the eons also but He is also “perfected for the eon.” The writer of Hebrews is not trying to tell us He is perfected for “eternity.” In that the Son was perfected for the eon, there was no need for another priest to come along and offer up a more perfect sacrifice than Christ. The chapter in which Hebrews 7:28 is found is speaking of a priesthood according to the order of Melchizedek and that the priests of Aaron died and were replaced by other dying priests yet Christ is remaining for the eon (7:24) and His ministry perfected for the eon. Besides, Don, your KJV does not even say “perfect for eternity” as it just has “consecrated for evermore.”

Don wrote:   Hebrews 9:12 “not even through the blood of he-goats and calves, but through His own blood, entered once for all time into the holy places, finding eonian redemption.” (note:  this is making a mockery out of Jesus Christ dying on the cross.)
Tony's reply:   I will quote A.E. Knoch on this matter:

REDEMPTION LIMITED

“It is most important to remember that, in all of these passages we are concerned with such a redemption as was known in the land of Israel under the law. It was concerned with the period of time until the next jubilee. Then all in bonds, or whose possessions were forfeited, recovered what they had lost apart from redemption. As the type so is the antitype. Redemption is for the eons. After the eons is the jubilee in which all will go free and all will regain what they have forfeited. Christ, we are told, obtained an eonian redemption (Heb.9:12). It would have been no disparagement to Boaz, His great progenitor, to have called his redemption of Ruth's allotment a limited one. She would have come into her allotment in the jubilee. He, however, secured it to her up to that time. So, too, with Christ. His redemption restores the possessions and liberty which will become universal at the consummation.” (A.E. Knoch, Unsearchable Riches, vol.7, p.277)
     It surely is not, as Don suggests, “making a mockery out of Jesus Christ dying on the cross.”

Don wrote:   Hebrews 9:14 “how much rather shall the blood of Christ, Who, through the eonian spirit offers Himself flawless to God, be cleansing your conscience from dead works to be offering divine service to the living and true God?” (note:  the Holy Spirit is also given by Jesus Christ.  John 14:18, John 20:22, Matthew 3:11, 2 Thessalonians 2:8)
Tony's reply:   First of all, Hebrews 9:14 makes no mention of “holy spirit.” There are plenty of verses in the Bible where “spirit” is used and is not meant to be “holy spirit.” Here is Hebrews 9:14: “Who, through the eonian spirit (which is the spirit pertaining to the eon(s)) offers Himself flawless to God.” This need not pertain to the holy spirit of God. The Bible talks about the “spirit of your mind” (Eph.4:23); “spirit of infirmity” (Lk.13:11); “the spirit of truth” or “truth's spirit” (Joh 14:17; 15:26; 16:13); “spirit of holiness” (Rom.1:4), or “holiness's spirit”; the “spirit of sonship” (Romans 8:15); “spirit of stupor” (Romans 11:8); “spirit of humanity” (1 Cor.2:11); “spirit of the world” (1 Cor.2:12); “spirit of meekness” (1 Cor.4:21, Gal.6:1); “spirit of faith” (2 Cor.4:13); “spirit of promise” (Eph.1:13); “spirit of wisdom” (Eph.1:17); “spirit of timidity” (2 Tim.1:7); “spirit of grace” (Heb.10:29); “1Pe 4:14 “the spirit of glory, the spirit of power, the spirit of God” (1 Peter 4:14); ׃spirit of deception” (1 John 4:6); “spirit of life” (Rev.11:11); “spirit of prophecy” (Rev.19:10). The eonian spirit is the spirit which pertains to the eons. It is not necessarily holy spirit.

Here is a quotation concerning “eonian spirit”:
    “Hebrews 9:14 tells us that Christ offered Himself through the eonian spirit. I think you will agree with me that clarity is not one of the attributes of this deduction. What does it mean? Christ offers Himself to God. This, we are told was done through another person, the eonian spirit! What is the meaning of through? If you do something through another, who actually performs it? Did the Holy Ghost actually offer Himself to God, and Christ only do it through Him? This is perplexing, hence it probably is not true. The Scriptures were not written to perplex but to explain and clarify.
    “We should always remember that the word spirit in the Bible represents words in the original which literally mean breeze, or blast} (John 3:8; Heb.1:7). And we should also remember that it is used of impersonal things, such as, for instance, “a meek and quiet spirit” (1 Pet.3:4). I think you will agree with me that this is not a “personality” who is meek and quiet, but the spirit of a person. Then we talk about the spirit of the age. Now you know the Greek word here translated “eternal” is really of the ages. Too bad we cannot say age-ian in English. But we can use the Greek word, which has entered our language and has become naturalized under the name eonian. It means that which belongs to the eons, or ages, of which Scripture often speaks. The so- called “end of the world” is really the end of the eon, and we are very near to it now. These eons are the time within which God uses evil and sin to reveal Himself. And it was through the spirit of these eons that Christ offered Himself. Men conform to the age in which they live. His offering corresponded with the character and needs of all the ages.
    “I do not wish you to think that I do not believe in the endless existence of God's spirit. But you will agree with me that this passage is no proof. Nor is one needed.” (A. E. Knoch, Unsearchable Riches, vol.27, Pages 283,284).

Don wrote:   Hebrews 13:20 “Now may the God of peace, Who is leading up our Lord Jesus, the great Shepherd of the sheep, from among the dead by the blood of the eonian covenant,”
     Hebrews 13:21 “be adapting you to every good work to do His will, doing in us what is well pleasing in His sight, through Jesus Christ, to Whom be glory for the eons of the eons. Amen!”(note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word “immortality”

Tony's reply:  I don't know how the word “immortality” contradicts the fact that there is a covenant pertaining to the eons and Jesus will get “glory for the eons of the eons.” If anyone can help Don on this better than me, I suggest you write him and help him on this matter.

Don wrote:   1 Peter 1:23 “having been regenerated, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, through the word of God, living and permanent,” (contradiction:  Strong's #165 “aion” is rendered 'permanent' in this verse). 1 Peter 1:25 “Yet the declaration of the Lord is remaining for the eon.”
(contradiction:  the Greek word “rhema” which is Strong's #4487 also appears in John 6:68 “Simon Peter answered Him, “Lord, to whom shall we come away? Declarations of life eonian has Thou!

Tony's reply:  Neither the Alexandrinus, Vaticanus nor Sinaticus have “eis ton aiwna” or “for the eon.” They all, however have “menontos” which is “remaining or permanent.”
     Also, Peter states in the verse that the “word of God is . . . permanent” Don thinks this contradicts John 6:68 which states that Christ had “declarations of life eonian.” But in John 6:68 the Greek word for “declarations” is PHMATA or “remata.” whereas “word” in: “the word of God” in 1 Peter 1:23 is LOGOU in Greek. Also, Don is confused. Strong's 3056 appears in 1 Peter 1:23, not #4487. #4487 does appear in John 6:68 for "words" but in 1 Peter 1:23 Strongs has #3056 which the CLNT consistently renders “declarations.”

Don wrote:   1 Peter 4:11 “if anyone is speaking, as the oracles of God; if anyone is dispensing, as out of the strength which God is furnishing; that in all God may be glorified, through Jesus Christ, to Whom is the glory and the might for the eons of the eons. Amen!”
     1 Peter 5:10 “Now the God of all grace, Who calls you into His eonian glory in Christ, while briefly suffering, He will be adjusting, establishing, firming, founding you.”
1 Peter 5:11 “To Him be glory and might for the eons of the eons. Amen!”
(note:  2 Peter 3:18 “Yet be growing in grace and in knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.  To Him be glory now, as well as for the day of the eon. Amen!”
     1 John 1:2 “And the life was manifested, and we have seen and are testifying and reporting to you the life eonian which was toward the Father and was manifested to us.”
(note:  eonian life of the Father?  Not according to 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible'

Tony's reply:  Note: none of the passages speak of the “eonian life of the Father” which Don tells us to take note of. The “eonian life” is that life which Christ manifested to those believers, and indeed, could be Christ Himself who was life eonian.

Don wrote:   1 John 2:17 “And the world is passing by, and its desire, yet he who is doing the will of God is remaining for the eon.”
(note: “the h in 'he' is not capitalized as in  1 Timothy 6:15, John 6:51, Romans 9:5 (“whom”),  etc.etc.etc.  in reference to Jesus Christ.)>

Tony's reply:  And just why should the “he” be capitalized? It is not capitalized in Don's beloved KJV either. It should not be. It is speaking of the believer that is doing the will of God. It is truly a pity that I must waste my time in order to correct these puerile points Don posts.

Don wrote:    1 John 5:11 “And this is the testimony, that God gives us life eonian, and this life is in His Son.” (note:  eonian life of the Father?  Not according to 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply:  It does not state: “eonian life of the Father.” It is saying that God gives us eonian life in His Son. He raises us immortal and incorruptible so that we can experience the life pertaining to the eons to come. That Christ is immortal and God incorruptible does not contradict or annul 1 John 5:11. Rather, because Christ is immortal and God incorruptible, we can be assured of having life in the coming eons!

Don wrote:    1 John 5:13 “These things I write to you that you who are believing in the name of the Son of God may be perceiving that you have life eonian.” 1 John 5:20 “Yet we are aware that the Son of God is arriving, and has given us a comprehension, that we know the True One, and we are in the True One, in His Son, Jesus Christ.  This One is the true God and life eonian.”
(contradiction: 'arriving?'  changing past tense into present tense, Jesus Christ had already ascended into heaven! See 1 Timothy 3:16)

Tony's reply:  “. . .is arriving” is in the present tense in the Greek. In every verse where “ekei” is, “is arriving” works fine to show the present tense of the word. Here is a list of every verse in the New Testament where "is arriving" is used:
     Luke 15:27: “. . . Your brother is arriving.”
     John 2:4: “ . . . Not as yet is my hour arriving.”
     John 4:47: “The man, hearing that Jesus is arriving in Galilee . . . .”
     1 John 5:20: “The Son of God is arriving.”

Don wrote:   Jude 1:13 “frothing forth their own shame; straying stars, for whom the gloom of darkness has been kept for an eon.” (contradicts Hebrews 2:14 - 17, Romans 8:3, Philippians 2:7 to name a few verses...satan is eternally condemned and well as satan's angels.  See Revelation 20:10)
Tony's reply:   This verse is speaking concerning those people who were invading the Jewish ecclesias who were doing the sins Jude revealed. I don't see what Romans 8:3 or Philippians 2:7 has to do with Jude 1:13. Hebrews 2:14 speaks of Christ, by His death discarding the Adversary who had the might of death. But that does not say the Adversary is eternally condemned any more than it does state that those people in the Jewish ecclesias are “eternally condemned” since it states they are kept for an eon. It doesn't say “kept eternally.”

Don wrote:    Jude 1:21 “keep yourselves in the love of God, anticipating the mercy of our Lord Jesus Christ for life eonian.” Jude 1:25 “to the only God, our Saviour, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, might and authority before the entire eon, now, as well as for all the eons. Amen!”
     Revelation 1:6 “and makes us a kingdom and priests to His God and Father, to Him be glory and might for the eons of the eons! Amen!”

     Revelation 1:18 “I am the First and the Last, and the Living One:  and I became dead, and lo!  living am I for the eons of the eons. (Amen!) And I have the keys of death and of the unseen.”
(note:  eonian life of the Son?  Contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply:  I wonder where Don sees “eonian life of the Son” in the above verses? Christ is immortal. God is incorruptible. Because both have these attributes the ones spoken of above can anticipate “life eonian” and Christ can have “glory, majesty, might and authority before the entire eon, now, as well as for all the eons” and that Christ is “living for the eons of the eons.” Immortality does not contradict the fact He will live for the next two eons. Rather, it assures it will be so!

Don wrote: Revelation 4:10 “The twenty-four elders, also, will be falling before Him Who is sitting on the throne and will be worshipping Him Who is living for the eons of the eons (Amen!).  And they are casting their wreaths before the throne, saying,” (note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word> “immortality”).
     Revelation 7:12 “saying, Amen!  Blessing and glory and wisdom and thanks and honor and power and strength be our God's for the eons of the eons. Amen!” (note:  the eons of the eons life of the Father? Contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 where God is both 'immortal and incorruptible')
Tony's reply: Don has lost me. Where do the scriptures he quoted say anything about “the eons of the eons life of the Father”? Revelation chapter 4 is concerning Christ, not the Father. Christ is, according to Revelation 4:10 which he quoted above, going to “be living for the eons of the eons” which are the last two eons to come (the 1000 year millennial reign and new earth eon). So, He in fact does live for the eons of the eons. He will not die because He has immortality and incorruption. This should give us assurance. Christ and those with Him also live for the 1000 years (see Revelation 20:4). I wonder why Don does not have a hairy fit about that. Why doesn't he state: You mean Christ will not live for eternity? when he reads that verse. Christ will live for a thousand years and will live for the eons of the eons which are the greatest eons of the eons that went before. And once the eons have ended, He will continue to live as will we.

Don wrote: Revelation 10:6 “and swears by Him Who is living for the eons of the eons, Who creates heaven and that which is in it and the earth and that which is in it, and the sea and that which is in it, that will be no longer a time of delay,”
(note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word “immortality”).

     Revelation 11:15 “And the seventh messenger trumpets.  And loud voices occurred in heaven, saying, “The kingdom of this world became our Lord's and His Christ's, and He shall be reigning for the eons of the eons! Amen!” (note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word “immortality”).
     Revelation 14:11 “And the fumes of their torment are ascending for the eons of the eons.  And they are having no rest day and night, those worshiping the wild beast and its image, and if anyone is getting the emblem of its name.”
     Revelation 15:7 “And one of the four animals gives to the seven messengers seven golden bowls brimming with the fury of God, Who is living for the eons of the eons. (Amen!)”
(note:  blatantly contradicts Hebrews 7:16, 1 Timothy 1:17, Romans 1:23, 2Timothy 1:10 and 1Timothy 6:16 in reference to the word “immortality”).
Tony's reply: Don seems to have a hangup with immortality and its relation to the eons. Because Christ has immortality and hence will never die, this allows Him to live for the next two eons. That should comfort us. Christ, who has immortality, will reign for the eons of the eons. Having immortality does not contradict the fact He will reign for the next two eons. It does, however, assure us that since He has immortality that He will be around for the next two eons in order to reign.

Don wrote: Revelation 19:3 “And her smoke is ascending for the eons of the eons.” (contradicts Hebrews 2:14 - 17, Romans 8:3, Philippians 2:7 to name a few verses...satan is eternally condemned and well as his angels.  See Revelation 20:10)
Tony's reply: Satan cannot be “eternally condemned” because there is no verse in the bible that states he is “eternally condemned.” Furthermore, if he was “eternally condemned” that would contradict Colossians 1:20 that all that are at enmity to God will be reconciled to God in the heavens and on the earth. Furthermore, Don has not proven his point that since the smoke is ascending for the eons of the eons that this somehow contradicts Hebrews 2:14-17, Romans 8:3 and Philippians 2:7.
Here is Hebrews 2:14-17: “Heb 2:14-17 Since, then, the little children have participated in blood and flesh, He also was very nigh by partaking of the same, that, through death, He should be discarding him who has the might of death, that is, the Adversary, (15) and should be clearing those whoever, in fear of death, were through their entire life liable to slavery." (16) For assuredly it is not taking hold of messengers, but it is taking hold of the seed of Abraham." (17) Whence He ought, in all things, to be made like the brethren, that He may be becoming a merciful and faithful Chief Priest in that which is toward God, to make a propitiatory shelter for the sins of the people."
    Does anybody out there who is reading this, comprehend how Don sees that the way Revelation 19:3 as translated in the Concordant Literal New Testament contradicts Hebrews 2:14-17? I am sorry but I just don't see his point.

    Let's move on to Don's next verse: Romans 8:3 “For what was impossible to the law, in which it was infirm through the flesh, did God, sending His own Son in the likeness of sin's flesh and concerning sin, He condemns sin in the flesh.” Exactly how is it so that if the smoke ascends for the eons of the eons, that this contradicts, according to Don, Romans 8:3? I am at a complete loss here.

    And the last verse Don referenced in which he stated that it is contradicted by the way Revelation 19:3 is translated in the CLNT is Philippians 2:7: “nevertheless empties Himself, taking the form of a slave, coming to be in the likeness of humanity” Is is possible that Don is just randomly picking verses out of a hat and saying they are contradicted by what is translated by the CLNT? Otherwise, I haven't a clue as to why he believes they are contradicted and Don sure is not letting us in on his reasons as to why either.

Don wrote: Revelation 22:5 “And night shall be no more, and they have no need of lamplight and sunlight, for the Lord God shall be illuminating them.  And they shall be reigning for the eons of the eons.” (note:  very contradictory rendering of “aionios” since this reign is after the judgement and after there is no more death (Revelation 21:4), not before!)
Tony's reply:     In Revelation 21:4 there is no more death for those in the New City Jerusalem and God's people. Death, however is still on the new earth as evidenced by the leaves of the tree are for the healing of the nations (Rev.22:2) not to mention that people will still be getting cast into the second death during the new earth (Rev.21:8) and this is so even after the great white throne judging.
    Furthermore, it is not a “very contradictory rendering of aionios'” as Don states because “aionios” is not even in that verse! However, the phrase, “For the eons of the eons” is, or as it is in the Greek: “eis tous aionas ton aionon.” In Revelation 22:5 which Don quotes is where John the revelator is being told that they will be reigning for the eons of the eons which would begin in the thousand year eon and then the new earth eon. John is not being told that they will begin reigning for the eons of the eons AFTER the new earth comes.

To continue reading my response to more of Don Hewey on the Concordant Literal New Testament please go here to Part III.
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